QUOTE (georgia @ Jun 27 2008, 06:33 AM)

Paine, your scenario doesn't change the fact the the "price discovery" function is being performed by the futures market, and even if there is "room to negotiate"a round the futures price, it doesn't change the fact that a rise in futures price is guaranteed to be reflected in the spot price, since differentials are being used.
You'd have to point out Masters' error. He seems to have a very good handle on the concepts.
You have fallen under Michael Masters' misleading, manipulative, self-serving statement. He hopes to convince everyone that the futures market is solely responsible for the price run-up, so Congress will regulate it and the money will flee into his portfolio. He virtually said as much himself. What Michael Masters says only makes sense if your Michael Masters.
Futures are derived from the primary market which is the spot market:
http://www.coolavenues.com/forums/showthread.php?t=16724QUOTE
Derivatives are one of the most complex instruments. The word derivative comes from the word ‘to derive’. It indicates that it has no independent value. A derivative is a contract whose value is derived from the value of another asset, known as the underlying asset, which could be a share, a stock market index, an interest rate, a commodity, or a currency. The underlying is the identification tag for a derivative contract. When the price of the underlying changes, the value of the derivative also changes. Without an underlying asset, derivatives do not have any meaning. For example, the value of a gold futures contract derives from the value of the underlying asset i.e., gold. The prices in the derivatives market are driven by the spot or cash market price of the underlying asset, which is gold in this example.
That's not to say the two markets don't interact, they do, but it's the combination of spot and future that discovers the price, not solely the futures market as Masters would gladly lead you to believe.
Here's EIA's take on it:
QUOTE
Prices in spot markets -- cargo-by-cargo and transaction-by-transaction -- send a clear signal about the supply/demand balance. Rising prices indicate that more supply is needed, and falling prices indicate that there is too much supply for the prevailing demand level. Furthermore, while most oil flows under contract, its price varies with spot markets. Futures markets also provide information about the physical supply/demand balance as well as the market's expectations.
So, this brings me back to how the spot market stops a price run-up in the futures market:
http://www.clevelandfed.org/Research/Comme...2004/Decnew.pdfQUOTE
Consider once again that six-month oil futures contract. By taking it, you agree to deliver oil in six months, and in six months you get the agreed-upon price. If you’re Shell Oil, or the Saudi royal family, you have oil to deliver, but if you’re not, you can acquire it -- at a cost. What does it cost to deliver the oil in six months? One strategy is to borrow money today to buy oil on the spot market, store it for six months, and then deliver it, get your payment, and pay back your loan. This puts a bound on the futures price: If the futures price is too high, it’s worthwhile for market participants to buy oil and store it, driving the spot price up and the futures price down.
The key sentence there is, "This puts a bound on the futures price". The bound is the spot market price.
Therefore, unless spot players follow futures players toward higher prices the run-up wouldn't be possible. So why is no one blaming the spot players (oil companies)?